Discrepancy
Mark 1 :40-42 NIV '84
40 A man with leprosy came to him and begged him on his knees, “If you are willing, you can make me clean.”
41 Jesus was indignant. He reached out his hand and touched the man. “I am willing,” he said. “Be clean!” 42 Immediately the leprosy left him and he was cleansed.
Mark 1:40-42 NIV
40 A man with leprosy came to him and begged him on his knees, “If you are willing, you can make me clean.”
41 Filled with compassion, Jesus reached out his hand and touched the man. “I am willing,” he said. “Be clean!” 42 Immediately the leprosy left him and he was cured.
While reading one of my daily reading plans I was stumbled over the word 'indignant'. Dictionary.com defines as: feeling, characterized by, or expressing strong displeasure at something considered unjust, offensive, insulting, or base: Origin: 1580–90; < Latin indignant- (stem of indignāns, present participle of indignārī to deem unworthy, take offense),
I started thinking Jesus probably took offense over the way He was approached by the man with leprosy. The man approached Jesus begging on his knees and Jesus was maybe insulted and I think He was displeased at the man for thinking he had to beg Him. You see, I found it odd that Jesus was indignant towards this Jewish man because when the gentile woman, Matthew 15:21-28, approached Jesus begging for her daughter to be healed, it doesn't say Jesus was indignant it just said, Jesus did not answer a word.
So, I decided to check out another version as found that the word 'indignant' was replaced with 'compassion'. Dictionary.com defines as a feeling of deep sympathy and sorrow for another who is stricken by misfortune, accompanied by a strong desire to alleviate the suffering.
These are two completely different meanings. One means sympathy or sorrow and the other means anger or insult. I started thinking how can a verse have such a different meaning in two different versions. The only thing I can figure is that Jesus had sympathy for the man but was angry because this man was a Jew and had the right to approach Him and ask yet this man was begging Him.
Ken, from Following Jesus, wrote a really good post on the Canaanite woman called "Why Such Harsh Words Jesus?" (Check it out, it is really good! ) I was thinking about this post as I was mulling over this word discrepancy and am leaning towards Jesus being displeased with this Jewish man for thinking he needed to beg Jesus for a healing.
We don't need to approach our Father in a begging format. He is willing to answer us if we are willing to ask and obey Him.
Jeremiah 17:14 NIV
Heal me, O Lord, and I will be healed;
save me and I will be saved,
for you are the one I praise.
Blessings,
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